ABOUT NDA
After the lots of teachings from the several losses in the wars the Academy of Joint Services was introduced to teach the future leaders for combined working of several academies. On 07 December 1954, with the commissioning of the National Defence Academy the interim process was crystallised. On 16 January 1955 the formal inauguration of the Academy took place .The National Defence Academy NDA offers only a full-time, residential undergraduate program. The successful students or the degree holders are said to be cadets who are awarded with a degree of Bachelor of Arts or a degree of Bachelor of Science after thecompletion of 3 years of study actually the Degree is said to be Baccalaureate degree. Students of NDA can choose between two streams of study. The Science stream includes the study od subjects like Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Computer Science whereas the Humanities (Liberal Arts) stream offers the study of subjects like History, Economics, Political Science, Geography and Languages.
ELIGIBILITY
General Qualifications:
1. Male Candidates
2. Unmarried
3. Born not earlier than January, 1993
4. Born not later than June, 1995 are eligible for NDA exam.
5. The candidates must also fulfill certain physical needs like the lenght, weight, vision standards.
Educational Qualifications:
(i) For Army wing :- 12th Class passed students or students appearing for the 12th class conducted by a State Education Board or Equivalent.
(ii) For Air Force and Naval Wings :- 12th Class passed students or students appearing for the 12th class with subjects Physics and Mathematics conducted by a State Education Board or equivalent.
A candidate must either be :
(i) a citizen of India, or
(ii) a subject of Bhutan, or
(iii) a subject of Nepal, or
(iv) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before the 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, or
(v) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka and East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.
Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.
Certificate of eligibility will not, however, be necessary in the case of candidates who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal.
SELECTION PROCEDURE
The selection of the candidates for NDA depends upon the three stages :
* Written Examination.
* Interview i.e. Intelligence and personality test.
* Medical Examination Test.
IMPORTANT DATES
Date of Online Application : First week of April
Last date for submitting Online Application : First week of May
Date/Day of Commencement of Examination – Mid of August
Fee
Candidates applying online are required to pay a reduced fee of Rs 50/- (Rs fifty) only either by remitting the money in any branch of SBI by cash, or by using net banking facility of SBI or by using Visa/Master Credit/Debit Card
Candidates applying off-line (through common application form) are required to pay a fee of Rs 100/- (Rs one hundred only) through central recruitment fee stamp only
SC/ST candidates are exempted from payment of fee
SYLLABUS:
Paper-I Mathematics
(Maximum Marks – 300)
1. Algebra
2.Matrices and Determinants
3.Trigonometry
4.Analytical Geometry of two and three dimensions
5.Differential Calculus
6.Integral Calculus and Differential equations
7. Vector Algebra
8.Statistics and Probability
Paper-II
General Ability Test
(Maximum Marks-600)
Part ‘A’ – ENGLISH (Maximum Marks 200). The English paper in Nda is assembled to test the candidate’s proficiency in English. The syllabus covers all aspects of english like Grammar, vocabulary, comprehension etc.
Part ‘B’ – General Awarness/ General Knowledge.
CONTACTS
UPSC, Dholpur House, Shahajahan road, New Delhi-110069
Telephone: 011-23389366/Fax 011-23387310, 011-23385271/ 23381125/ 23098543 on working days between 10.00 hrs and 17.00 hrs
Website: www.upsc.gov.in
SAMPLE PAPERS:
NDA Sample Question Paper1
It is not good / of the wicked persons (P)/ to overthrow (Q)/ to accept the help (R)/ the righteous persons. (S)
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
* (A) R S Q P
* (B) Q S R P
* (C) R P Q S
* (D) Q P R S
The minister had to_____some awkward questions from reporters.
* (a) fend
* (b) fend at
* (c) fend out
* (d) fend off
Brazil’s Guaranis from being Internet savvy(P) are an ancient tribe who live in the country’s remote jungles,(Q) excluded them(R) but that has not.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
* (a) P S R Q
* (b) Q R S P
* (c) P R S Q
* (d) Q S R P
A whole generation of Indians gave up everything and spent their lives in fighting in British in Gandhi’s way without hurting, without violence, without hatred. The hope that India would one day be free kept them going through very difficult times and gave them courage. When millions of people want the same thing very much, it is a great force which even the most powerful army cannot oppose.
Q. The demand for freedom became a ‘great force’. What is the most likely reason for it?
* (A) Great leaders gave the call for freedom
* (B) Millions of people wanted to get freedom
* (C) The British rule did not permit any freedom
* (D) Freedom is a noble ideal
Q. Which is the ‘most powerful army’ referred to in the passage?
* (A) The powerful army of the Government of India
* (B) The powerful army of the British
* (C) Any powerful army fighting against the wishes of millions of people
* (D) The army formed by the freedom fighters
Sample Question Paper2
FILL IN THE BLANKS
Directions (For the following 6 items):
Each of the following Six sentences has a blank space
and four words or groups of words are given after the
sentence. Out of these four choices, select the word or group
of words which you consider the most appropriate for the
blank space
1. To the dismay of all the students, the class monitor
was _____berated by the Principal at a school assembly.
(a) critically
(b) ignominiously
(c) prudently
(d) fortuitously
2. All attempts to revive the fishing industry
were_____failure.
(a) foredoomed to
(b) heading at
(c) predicted for
(d) estimated to
3. There are_____parked outside than yesterday.
(a) fewer cars
(b) few cars
(c) less cars
(d) a small number of cars
4. The minister had to_____some awkward questions
from reporters.
(a) fend
(b) fend at
(c) fend out
(d) fend off
5. The_____of evidence was on the side of the plaintiff
since all but one of the witnesses testified that his story was
correct.
(a) propensity
(b) force
(c) preponderance
(d) brunt
6. Attention to detail is_____of a fine craftsman.
(a) hallmark (b) stamp
(c) seal of authority (d) authenticity
SPOTTING ERRORS
Directions (For the following 5 items):
In this Section a number of sentences is given. The
sentences are underlined in three separate parts
labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out
whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence
has more than one error. When you find an error in any one
of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response
on the separate Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You
may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter
(d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
Examples ‘P’ and ‘Q’ have been solved for you.
P. The young child(a) singed(b) a very sweet song.(c)
No error.(d)
Q. We worked(a) very hard(b) throughout the season.(c)
No error.(d)
Explanation:
In item P, the word ‘singed’ is wrong. The letter under
this part is (b); so (b) is the correct answer.
Similarly, for item Q, (d) is the correct answer, as the sentence does not contain
any error.
7. If it weren’t(a) for you,(b) I wouldn’t be alive
today.(c) No error.(d)
8. He looked like a lion(a) baulked from(b) its prey.(c)
No error.(d)
9. Widespread flooding(a) is effecting(b) large areas
of the villages.(c) No error.(d)
10. She regards(a) negotiating prices with customers(b)
as her special preserve.(c) No error.(d)
11. Often in political campaigns, a point is reached at
which(a) the candidates take out their gloves (b) and
start slugging with bare fists.(c) No error.(d)
SELECTING WORDS/PHRASES
Directions (For the following 5 items):
In the following passage at certain points, you are given
a choice of three words/phrases, underlined and marked (a),
(b), (c). Choose the best word/phrase out of the three
Examples ‘K’ and ‘L’ have been solved for you.
K. The river has been
(a) rising
(b) raising
(c) arising
all night.
L. We built the raft
(a) too strong
(b) very strong
(c) strong enough
to hold us.
Explanation:
Out of the list given in ‘K’, only ‘rising’ is the correct
answer because a river cannot be raised, it rises on its own.
So (a) is the correct answer for item ‘K’. For item ‘L’, (c) is the
correct answer.
Read the passage carefully before you make your choices.
It hasn’t worked
12. (a) by
(b) out
(c) off
that way. Indeed, the gaps between theory and reality are so
numerous that they
13. (a) raise
(b) arise
(c) rise
questions about how much, if at all, the theory will work in
the future. Americans projected their own experience onto
the rest of the world. If prosperity and material progress had
created political cohesion at home—binding together a large
and
14. (a) ethically diverse
(b) ethnically diverse
(c) ethnically wide
nation—it could do the same abroad. But this marriage
between economics and politics may be losing its power.
What seemed to be the ascendancy of American ideas
camouflaged new problems and conflicts. The theory may
have been
15. (a) better
(b) aptly
(c) much
suited to the cold war than its aftermath. The most
16. (a) conspicuous
(b) conscientious
(c) conscious
problem, of course, involves the outbreak of terrorism.
SYNONYMS
Directions (For the following 7 items):
Each of the following Seven items consists of a word in
capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words.
Select the word or group of words that is most similar in
meaning to the word in capital letters.
17. PROCRASTINATE
(a) Intimidate (b) Humiliate
(c) Predict (d) Postpone
18. ABOMINABLE
(a) Original (b) Detestable
(c) Preferable (d) Complimentary
19. RESCIND
(a) Cancel (b) Enjoy
(c) Praise (d) Receive
20. COLLATERAL
(a) Pathetic (b) Tiresome
(c) Guarantee (d) Magnanimous
21. KNAVE
(a) Novice (b) Dishonest
(c) Futuristic (d) Traditional
22. FINESSE
(a) Skill (b) Softness (c) Charm (d) Gist
23. ARDOUR
(a) Enthusiasm (b) Candidness
(c) Discipline (d) Fairness
ANTONYMS
Directions (For the following 7 items):
Each of the following Seven items consists of a word in
capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words.
Select the word or group of words that is furthest in meaning
to the word in capital letters.
24. SAGE
(a) Miser (b) Fool
(c) Traitor (d) Tyrant
25. FLEDGLING
(a) Adversary (b) Callow
(c) Social outcast (d) Experienced person
26. PREDILECTION
(a) Predicament (b) Afterthought
(c) Aversion (d) Postponement
27. HIDEBOUND
(a) Strong-willed (b) Open-minded
(c) Well-informed (d) Well-to-do
28. ADULATION
(a) Criticism (b) Purity
(c) Ambiguous (d) Accolades
29. ANIMATED
(a) Penetrating (b) Modern
(c) Dull (d) Similarity
30. ILLUSIVE
(a) Not brilliant (b) Not coherent
(c) Not deceptive (d) Not obvious
ORDERING OF SENTENCES
Directions (For the following 5 items):
In the following items each passage consists of six
sentences. The first sentence (S1) and the sixth sentence (S6)
are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in
each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled
P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence
of the four sentences
Example ‘X’ has been solved for you.
X. S1 : There was a boy named Jack.
S6 : At last she turned him out of the house.
P : So the mother asked him to find work.
Q : They were very poor.
R : He lived with his mother.
S : But Jack refused to work.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) R Q P S (b) P Q R S
(c) Q P R S (d) R P S Q
Explanation:
The proper sequence in this example is R Q P S which is
marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
31. S1 : A city tour organised by the airport got our
next vote.
S6 : “We can only grow in height as most of our
land is reclaimed from the mud brought from
neighbouring countries”, said Bernadette.
P : A bumboat ride through the Singapore River
gave us a vantage view of the country’s prized
possession of skyscrapers in the central
business district.
Q : The tour is very popular with transit
passengers and there are many such buses
doing the route.
R : We were greeted into an air-conditioned Volvo
bus with a bottle of chilled water.
S : On the drive through the ‘colonial heart’ of the
city, our guide, Bernadette, pointed out the
Parliament House, Supreme Court and City
Hall to us.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) R S Q P (b) P Q S R
(c) R Q S P (d) P S Q R
32. S1 : But Bhutan is a curious mix of modern and
the medieval.
S6 : His licence plate reads simply ‘BHUTAN’.
P : It was next to a speed limit sign : 8 km an hour.
Q : Even the king zips through in a navy blue
Toyota Land Cruiser.
R : I noticed a rusty sign for the Kit Kat chocolate
bar and realised it was the only advertisement
I had seen.
S : Yet in the cities, most middle class people drive
brand new Japanese cars.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) S Q R P (b) R P S Q
(c) S P R Q (d) R Q S P
33. S1 : His usually fretful features composed,
Javagal Srinath announced his retirement
from international cricket.
S6 : He finished with 236 wickets in 67 Tests and
315 in 229 One-day Internationals.
P : He had spent the early years of his 13-year
career sitting out nine Tests when he was at
his quickest, being reminded of everything he
was not.
Q : In a classic case of appreciating a good thing
when it is gone, the tributes poured in for
India’s most successful pace bowler after Kapil
Dev.
R : Not aggressive enough, not a non-vegetarian,
not an all-rounder.
S : Srinath soldiered on, whether wickets were flat
or causes lost, as they often were when India
toured.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) Q P R S (b) R S Q P
(c) Q S R P (d) R P Q S
34. S1 : However, the flower industry also has its
share of thorns.
S6 : Also, there are not tax concessions from the
government.
P : Most companies have to individually invest
in the transport, which is very costly.
Q : Then there are infrastructural bootlenecks—no
refrigerated transport or retail chains and
warehouses to store the highly perishable
commodity.
R : For one, it is extremely fragmented and
dominated by small players who don’t have
the financial muscle to expand the business.
S : Ferns & Petals claims to be the only flower
retailer with a multi-city presence in India.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) Q S R P (b) R P Q S
(c) Q P R S (d) R S Q P
35. S1 : One could well be forgiven for momentarily
confusing Spencer Plaza, Chennai, with a
Dubai Shopping Mall.
S6 : Sensing that healthcare plus tourism adds to
big opportunities, corporate hospitals, in
cooperation with tour operators, are promoting
India as a healthcare destination from the
Middle East to Far East.
P : Having satiated their shopping instincts, many
head back, not to a hotel, but to a hospital, and
to ailing relatives.
Q : Arabs pour in and out of trendy showrooms,
laden with bags full of branded clothes,
footwear and cosmetics.
R : It is a scenario being replicated across India.
S : For these are tourists with a difference, attracted
to India for its cutting edge medical expertise
more than its charms.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) Q P S R (b) S R Q P
(c) Q R S P (d) S P Q R
ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
Directions (For the following 5 items)
In the following items some parts of the sentence have
been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts
which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct
sentence. Choose the proper sequence
Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you.
Z. It is well known that the effect(P) is very bad(Q) on
children(R) of cinema.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) P S R Q (b) S P Q R
(c) S R P Q (d) Q S R P
Explanation:
The proper way of writing the sentence is ‘It is well
known that the effect of cinema on children is very bad.’ This
is indicated by the sequence P S R Q and so (a) is the correct
answer.
36. Brazil’s Guaranis from being Internet savvy(P) are
an ancient tribe who live in the country’s remote jungles,(Q)
excluded them(R) but that has not.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) P S R Q (b) Q R S P
(c) P R S Q (d) Q S R P
37. A game host that could be used at the airport dutyfree
shops(P) and the winner walked away with(Q) shot out
ten witty questions(R) vouchers worth 200 Singapore
dollars.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) P S Q R (b) R Q S P
(c) P Q S R (d) R S Q P
38. And while without adequate international
support(P) the US military has been forced into remaining in
Iraq(Q) the overthrow of Saddam Hussein may have been
quick,(R) longer than anticipated.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) R S Q P (b) P Q S R
(c) R Q S P (d) P S Q R
39. The socialist philosophy as it is the market
philosophy(P) has been given a decent burial(Q) which is
the rage now(R) in political practice.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) Q S P R (b) R P S Q
(c) Q P S R (d) R S P Q
40. It began as an officially sanctioned project, could
achieve as a nation(P) but turned into a mass movement and
an extraordinary act of faith,(Q) if it got its act together,(R)
which changed not just the lives of millions but the notions
of what India.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) P S R Q (b) Q S R P
(c) P R S Q (d) Q R S P
COMPREHENSION
Directions (For the following 10 items):
In this Section you have Three short passages. After each
passage you will find several questions based on the passage.
First, read Passage—I, and answer the questions based on it.
Then go on to the other passages. You are required to select
your answers based on the contents of the passage and
opinion of the author only.
Examples ‘I’ and ‘J’ are solved for you.
PASSAGE
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a
basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakably is the
desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of
life at different levels of existence make up the teeming
denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they
belong to the higher groups such as human beings or to the
lower groups such as animals, all beings primarily seek peace,
comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it
is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection
against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us
wants to live and not to die, so do all other creatures.
I. The author’s main point is that:
(a) different forms of life are found on earth
(b) different levels of existence are possible in
nature
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of all
living beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve
its life
J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is
essential in developing the author’s position?
(a) All forms of life have a single overriding goal
(b) The will to survive of a creature is identified
with a desire for peace
(c) All beings are divided into higher and lower
groups
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and
life, and pain and death
Explanation:
I. The idea which represents the author’s main point is
‘peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings’,
which is response (c). So (c) is the correct answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage is ‘The
will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for
peace’, which is response (b). So (b) is the correct answer.
PASSAGE—I
I was late bloomer and always envied those people who
stood out in high school, because I didn’t. I learned early on,
though, that it’s essential to set yourself apart from the group.
Life is one struggle after another to succeed, particularly when
you’re starting out. If your bio-data is sitting at the bottom
of a pile of junk mail, sometimes a distinctive approach will
get you noticed, especially if the competition is fierce.
Once, my partner Jerry and I asked the other freelance
writers of a TV serial what characters they hated to write for
the most. Everybody said the same thing—they disliked
writing for the minor characters because they felt that writing
for them wouldn’t help them get other jobs. Jerry and I
decided that we would write scripts for the minor characters
because that’s what was needed—and we needed to set
ourselves apart.
In the first script Jerry and I wrote, a schoolgirl falls in
love with a boy in her class. The producers loved the story.
And with that one script, Jerry and I were no longer just
another comedy-writing team.
41. The author is of the opinion that
(a) one should be part of the group
(b) one should be different from others
(c) it is important to do well in high school
(d) one should heed to the advice of the seniors
42. The author had been
(a) into advertising business
(b) a comedy writer
(c) a music director
(d) a newsreader
43. According to the author
(a) one should be very meticulous in preparing
his bio-data
(b) competition in the job-market is very fierce
(c) One should follow a conservative approach in
preparing his bio-data
(d) one should try to get noticed by being
innovative
44. Jerry and the author wrote scripts for the minor
characters
(a) to realize their creative potential
(b) to earn more money
(c) to establish a different image
(d) because they did not have enough work
PASSAGE—II
Wind power has obvious advantages—it is nonpolluting,
causes no ecological imbalance, requires no
throughput fuel and has extremely low gestation period.
After almost a decade of sporadic growth, wind energy
finally seems to be stepping out from shadows of alternative
technology into the commercial mainstream, worldwide.
Even though, India now has an installed base of just over
1,600 MW. This is nothing compared to countries such as
Germany, which meets around 20 per cent of its energy
requirements from wind energy.
Wind power offers long-term price stability too. Not only
are generation costs of such projects low, the capital
expenditure is comparable to fossil fuel-based stations. Windpower
plants have low operating and maintenance costs.
Long-term economics work out to be quite favourable for the
wind-energy. In fact, it is being seen as a solution to
sustainable development. By the end of 2001, the installed
wind-power was almost 25,000 MW.
45. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Wind-power plants take a long time to get
commissioned.
(b) Maintenance cost of wind-power plants is high.
(c) Wind-power plants lead to violent vibrations.
(d) Wind-power plants require no fuel.
46. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Installation of wind-power plants is resisted
by environmentalists.
(b) Generation cost of wind-power plants is high.
(c) Installation cost of wind-power plants is much
higher than that of fossil fuel-based plants.
(d) Wind-power is now being commercially
harnessed.
47. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) In Germany, 25,000 MW of electricity is
generated by using wind-power.
(b) Wind-power plants offer no price stability.
(c) Wind-power is economically viable on longterm
basis.
(d) In America, 20% of the power requirements
are met through wind-power.
PASSAGE—III
A group of prospective jurors was asked by the judge
whether any of them felt they had ever been treated unfairly
by an officer of the law. “I once got a ticket for running a stop
sign”, Caroline replied, ”even though I definitely came to a
complete stop.”
“Did you pay the fine?” the judge questioned.
“Yes”.
“If you thought you were innocent”, the judge went on,
“why didn’t you contest it?”
“Your Honour”, she replied, “there have been so many
times I didn’t get a ticket for running a stop sign that I figured
this evened things out a little.”
48. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Caroline was caught travelling without ticket
in a local train.
(b) Caroline was caught while driving at a speed
above the speed limit.
(c) Caroline was driving without a driving license.
(d) Caroline was fined for jumping the stop signal.
49. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Caroline made a complaint against the traffic
inspector for his high-handedness.
(b) Caroline had to pay a bribe.
(c) Caroline was sent to the jail for her crime.
(d) Caroline decided to pay the fine.
50. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Caroline had been penalised many times before
for driving offences.
(b) Caroline was an officer of the law.
(c) Caroline was a prospective juror.
(d) Caroline was undergoing police training.
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d)
5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) ‘you’
8. (b) ‘baulked at’ 9. (b) ‘is affecting’
10. (d) No error
11. (a) ‘…..a point is reached where’
12. (b)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a)
17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (b)
25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (a)
29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (c)
33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (d)
37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (c)
45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (d)
49. (d) 50. (c)
Discussions